Sufficient condition for existence and uniqueness of solution of 1st order linear ODE
Note: Through out the discussion we assume the following hypothesis:
HIVP: Let f:I×(Ω⊆Rn)→(Ω⊆Rn) be a continuous function with I⊆R containing x0∈R. Here n∈N.
Now let's formalise the condition:
Theorem (Picard-Lindelof):
Consider the following IVP:
dxdy=f(x,y)y(x0)=y0
where f satisfies the HIVP, where (x0,y0)∈I×Ω being interior point of the set along with ∂y∂f also satisfies HIVP. Also consider the rectangle:
R={(x,y)∈I×Ω:∣x−x0∣≤a,∣∣y−y0∣∣≤b,a,b∈R+}⊆I×Ω
Let M=Supx∈Rf then (1) has a solution in a interval contained in (x0−δ,x0+δ), where δ=min{a,Mb}.
Note: A more general condition can be imposed on f as f being Lipsticz continuous on y variable instead of the condition ∂y∂f satisfying HIVP.
Lipsticz Continous: Let f:X⊆Rm→Y⊆Rn is called a Lipsticz fucntion if ∣∣f(x)−f(y)∣∣n≤k∣∣x−y∣∣m where k∈R+.
*Lipsticz Continous (on y-variable): Let f:I×(Ω⊆Rm)→(Ω⊆Rm) is called a Lipsticz fucntion if ∣∣f(x,y1)−f(x,y2)∣∣m≤k∣∣y1−y2∣∣mfor each fixed x∈R where k∈R+, [where k doesn't depend on x].k could very well depend on x in general but or our purpose we enforce the independece of k on x.
Now, if we assume that ∂y∂f is continous then on the closed bounded set R in above theorem ∃M≥0 such that ∣∣∂y∂f(x,y)∣∣op≤M(x,y)∈R. Now, by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem we get the following inequality:
f(x,y1)−f(x,y2)=∂y∂f(x,ζ)(y1−y2)
where ζ∈(y1,y2), [where (y1,y2):={y1(1−t)+y2t:t∈(0,1)}]
Now taking norm both side we get,
∣∣f(x,y1)−f(x,y2)∣∣m=∣∣∂y∂f(x,ζ)(y1−y2)∣∣m
⟹∣∣f(x,y1)−f(x,y2)∣∣m=∣∣∂y∂f(x,ζ)∣∣op∣∣(y1−y2)∣∣m≤M∣∣y1−y2∣∣m
That is f becomes Lipscitz.
Handling nth order.
I am here showing a particular 2nd-order case. General case will be similar.
Consider the following IVP:
a0(x)y′′+a1(x)y′+a2(x)y=r(x)y(0)=c1,y′(0)=c2
where c1,c2∈R and (a,b)⊆R such that 0∈(a,b) and ai(x),r(x) are continous functions on (a,b) with a0(x)=0∀x∈(a,b).
Then (3) has a unique solution in a interval containg 0 and contained in (a,b).
Solution:
The trick is to convert the second order ODE to first order ODE and use our known method.
Let Y=(y,y′)
we have y′′=a0r−a0a1y′−a0a2y
Then we have,
dxdY=f(x,Y)Y(0)=(y(0),y′(0))=(c1,c2)=Y0
where f(x,Y)=(y′,a0r−a0a1y′−a0a2y)
Now, f is continous function on (a,b)×R2. Here we don't even need to consider a subset Ω⊆R2 containing (c1,c2) as the f is linear in both y,y′ and hence continous on whole of R2 and a0=0 in (a,b) hence a0r,a0a1,a0a2 are continous on (a,b).
Also, ∂Y∂f=(0−a0a21−a0a1) is also continous on (a,b)×R2 for same reason above. Hence by Theorem (Picard-Lindelof) we have a unique solution to the ODE (4)⟹(3).